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Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA 200-301)

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30 daily web questions Source-backed explanations 7-day score history Questions updated at Apr 15, 2026, 3:41 PM CDT
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Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA 200-301)

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Today's 30 CCNA questions

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150 verified questions are currently in the live bank. Questions updated at Apr 15, 2026, 3:41 PM CDT. The daily set rotates at 10:00 AM local time, and each explanation links back to the source used to write it. Use the web set for quick practice, then switch to the app when available for larger banks and deeper review.

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Question 1 of 30
Objective 1.7 Network Fundamentals

Which of the following IPv4 address ranges is designated for private use according to RFC 1918 and used as inside local addressing within a network?

Concept tested: Network Fundamentals

A. Incorrect: 203.0.113.0/24 is incorrect because it represents a special-use address range designated for documentation purposes and cannot be used as private addressing.

B. Correct: 172.16.0.0/12 is correct because it is one of the three reserved ranges defined by RFC 1918 specifically for private use within networks, allowing organizations to utilize this block internally without conflicting with public IP addresses.

C. Incorrect: 192.0.2.0/24 is incorrect because it represents a special-use address range designated for documentation purposes and cannot be used as private addressing.

D. Incorrect: 10.0.0.0/8 is incorrect because it is also a private RFC 1918 range, but the stem is asking for the 172.16.0.0/12 private range.

Why this matters: This matters because understanding these address ranges is crucial for configuring and managing internal network environments effectively.
Question 2 of 30
Objective 4.7 IP Services

In a network where traffic is classified into different priorities, what happens if the marking of packets does not match their priority level?

Concept tested: IP Services

A. Incorrect: Incorrectly marked packets are dropped immediately by routers is incorrect because ly marked packets are not automatically dropped by routers; instead, they may be processed based on their markings.

B. Incorrect: All traffic will automatically adjust to the highest priority queue is incorrect because all traffic does not adjust to the highest priority queue when there are marking errors; only correctly marked high-priority traffic gets preferential treatment.

C. Incorrect: Marking errors do not affect queuing or congestion handling is incorrect because marking errors can indeed affect queuing and congestion handling negatively by misrouting packets according to their erroneous markings.

D. Correct: Traffic with incorrect markings may be queued incorrectly, leading to potential degradation of service for higher-priority traffic.

Why this matters: This matters because understanding how packet marking affects network performance ensures effective prioritization and quality of service management in real-world scenarios.
Question 3 of 30
Objective 2.1 Network Access

Which switchport mode carries traffic for multiple VLANs across the link between two switches?

Concept tested: Network Access

A. Incorrect: Access mode is incorrect because places a port in a single VLAN for endpoint connectivity.

B. Correct: Trunk mode carries traffic for multiple VLANs across an inter-switch link.

C. Incorrect: Routed mode is incorrect because makes the interface operate as a Layer 3 port instead of a VLAN trunk.

D. Incorrect: Protected port mode is incorrect because limits Layer 2 communication and does not carry multiple VLANs between switches.

Why this matters: This matters because trunk and access port selection controls whether VLANs stay isolated or can traverse the switching fabric correctly.
Question 4 of 30
Objective 5.5 Security Fundamentals

In a scenario where multiple branch offices need to securely connect to headquarters over the internet, which IPsec tunnel type is most suitable for establishing site-to-site connectivity?

Concept tested: Security Fundamentals

A. Incorrect: Remote-access IPsec tunnel is incorrect because it is designed for individual users to connect securely from remote locations rather than connecting entire networks.

B. Incorrect: Point-to-point IPsec tunnel is incorrect because it is a point-to-point tunnel connects two specific endpoints directly and does not scale well for multiple branch offices.

C. Correct: Site-to-site IPsec tunnel is correct because it is specifically designed to secure connections between two or more networks, such as headquarters and branch offices.

D. Incorrect: Dynamic IPsec tunnel is incorrect because s are typically used for mobile devices and do not provide the stable connectivity needed for site-to-site communication.

Why this matters: This matters because site-to-site VPNs protect traffic between networks, while remote-access VPNs protect individual users.
Question 5 of 30
Objective 6.7 Automation and Programmability

In a JSON configuration file, which of the following correctly represents an array containing both a string with special characters and a nested object?

Concept tested: Automation and Programmability

A. Correct: ["\u0026","{\"key\":\"value\"}"] is correct because it correctly represents an array with a string containing special characters encoded in JSON and a nested object.

B. Incorrect: {"specialChars":"\u0026","nestedObj":{"key":"value"}} is incorrect because it uses an object instead of an array to contain the elements.

C. Incorrect: {"specialChars":"&","nestedObj":{"key":"value"}} is incorrect because although it includes a string with special characters, it does not use proper JSON encoding for them.

D. Incorrect: ["&",{"key":"value"}] is incorrect because while it represents an array containing both a string and an object, it fails to encode the ampersand (&) character in JSON format.

Why this matters: This matters because understanding how to properly represent strings with special characters and nested objects in JSON arrays is crucial for configuring automation scripts correctly.
Question 6 of 30
Objective 3.1 IP Connectivity

When analyzing a routing table entry for 172.16.254.0/24 via OSPF with next hop 192.168.1.1, what does the 'O' in the protocol code represent?

Concept tested: IP Connectivity

A. Correct: Open Shortest Path First is correct because it indicates that this route was learned through OSPF.

B. Incorrect: OSPF process ID is incorrect because it refers to a process identifier within OSPF and does not represent the protocol code in routing tables.

C. Incorrect: Directly connected network is incorrect because 'O' specifically denotes routes discovered via OSPF, not directly connected networks.

D. Incorrect: RIP version number is incorrect because rIP (Routing Information Protocol) uses different codes for its route types, unrelated to OSPF's protocol designation.

Why this matters: This matters because understanding the specific meanings of routing table codes helps in diagnosing and troubleshooting network issues effectively.
Question 7 of 30
Objective 1.8 Network Fundamentals

Which IPv6 prefix length is typically used on a LAN segment when hosts must support SLAAC autoconfiguration?

Concept tested: Network Fundamentals

A. Incorrect: /48 is incorrect because it is usually an assigned site or organization prefix, not the normal host-facing LAN prefix for SLAAC.

B. Incorrect: /56 is incorrect because it is commonly delegated to a site or customer, but it is still larger than the usual LAN segment prefix.

C. Correct: /64 is the standard LAN prefix length used with IPv6 SLAAC host addressing.

D. Incorrect: /127 is incorrect because it is used for point-to-point links, not normal LAN segments that need SLAAC.

Why this matters: This matters because many IPv6 design and troubleshooting questions depend on knowing when /64 is expected instead of treating IPv6 like IPv4 subnet math.
Question 8 of 30
Objective 4.9 IP Services

In a scenario where network devices require frequent software updates, why might an IT manager choose FTP over TFTP for transferring these updates?

Concept tested: IP Services

A. Incorrect: TFTP is faster due to its simple protocol is incorrect because it suggests TFTP is faster, but both FTP and TFTP have comparable transfer speeds.

B. Correct: FTP provides better security features like encryption, making it more suitable for environments where data integrity and confidentiality are critical.

C. Incorrect: TFTP supports larger file sizes than FTP is incorrect because tFTP does not support larger file sizes than FTP; in fact, FTP can handle larger files due to its advanced features.

D. Incorrect: FTP requires less bandwidth during transfers is incorrect because fTP does not necessarily require less bandwidth during transfers compared to TFTP.

Why this matters: This matters because understanding the security differences between FTP and TFTP is crucial for ensuring secure software updates on network devices.
Question 9 of 30
Objective 2.6 Network Access

Which mode of operation is an autonomous access point (AP) typically configured in when it operates independently without a connection to a centralized controller?

Concept tested: Network Access

A. Incorrect: Controller-based mode is incorrect because it requires a connection to a centralized controller for configuration and management.

B. Incorrect: Cloud-managed mode is incorrect because relies on a cloud service provider for managing the access point's configurations and policies, not independent operation.

C. Incorrect: Hybrid mode is incorrect because combines elements of both local and controller-based modes but still involves some level of central control or cloud management.

D. Correct: Local mode allows an autonomous AP to operate independently without any external controller or centralized management.

Why this matters: This matters because understanding the operational modes of access points is crucial for configuring network devices correctly in various deployment scenarios.
Question 10 of 30
Objective 5.4 Security Fundamentals

What is the primary purpose of implementing multi-factor authentication (MFA) in a network environment?

Concept tested: Security Fundamentals

A. Incorrect: To reduce password complexity requirements is incorrect because it reduces password complexity requirements but does not address securing access to network resources.

B. Incorrect: To eliminate the need for certificate-based authentication is incorrect because eliminating certificate-based authentication contradicts the purpose of MFA which aims to strengthen security measures.

C. Incorrect: To simplify user account management is incorrect because simplifying user account management is unrelated to the core objective of verifying authorized users' identities through multiple factors.

D. Correct: To ensure that only authorized users can access resources is correct because it ensures that only individuals with proper authorization can access network resources, thereby enhancing security.

Why this matters: This matters because understanding MFA's role in securing network access is crucial for protecting sensitive information and complying with security standards.
Question 11 of 30
Objective 6.2 Automation and Programmability

Which management approach is more suitable for implementing consistent security policies across a large network infrastructure?

Concept tested: Automation and Programmability

A. Incorrect: Traditional manual configuration on each device is incorrect because manually configuring each device in a large network would be time-consuming and prone to human error.

B. Correct: Centralized controller-based policy enforcement allows for consistent security policies across the entire network infrastructure efficiently.

C. Incorrect: Decentralized control with local device autonomy is incorrect because decentralized control with local autonomy can lead to inconsistent application of security policies, increasing risk.

D. Incorrect: Hybrid model combining both traditional and controller-based methods is incorrect because while a hybrid model might work in some cases, it does not provide the same level of consistency and efficiency as centralized management.

Why this matters: This matters because centralized policy enforcement ensures uniform security across all devices, which is crucial for network integrity and compliance.
Question 12 of 30
Objective 3.2 IP Connectivity

In a network, if two routes to 192.168.10.0/24 exist, one via EIGRP with an administrative distance of 90 and another via static routing with the same metric but an AD of 1, which route will be selected by default?

Concept tested: IP Connectivity

A. Incorrect: Static route because it has a higher administrative distance is incorrect because it is a lower administrative distance indicates higher preference for routing, so static routes with a higher AD are less preferred.

B. Correct: EIGRP because it has a lower administrative distance is correct because it has the lowest administrative distance, making EIGRP the preferred path in this scenario.

C. Incorrect: Both routes are equally preferred as they have identical metrics is incorrect because while both routes have identical metrics, the route selection process prioritizes administrative distance over metric value when comparing different routing protocols.

D. Incorrect: Neither route is preferred due to conflicting administrative distances is incorrect because there's no conflict between the two routes; one simply has a lower AD and thus takes precedence.

Why this matters: This matters because understanding administrative distances helps in configuring optimal network paths for efficient data transmission.
Question 13 of 30
Objective 1.4 Network Fundamentals

When troubleshooting a network issue, you find that two connected devices are experiencing frequent errors and dropped packets. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

Concept tested: Network Fundamentals

A. Incorrect: Incorrect VLAN configuration is incorrect because vLAN configuration issues typically cause problems like broadcast storms or connectivity issues between different VLANs, rather than frequent errors and dropped packets.

B. Incorrect: Inadequate power supply to switches is incorrect because it would likely result in the devices not functioning at all or experiencing intermittent operation, but it wouldn't specifically lead to speed-related packet loss.

C. Correct: Speed mismatch between devices is correct because it is a speed mismatch between devices can cause data transmission issues such as collisions, excessive retries, and dropped packets due to incompatible speeds like 10 Mbps vs. 1 Gbps.

D. Incorrect: Misconfigured access control lists is incorrect because it would restrict or deny traffic based on rules set by the administrator but wouldn't directly result in frequent errors and dropped packets.

Why this matters: This matters because understanding speed mismatches helps diagnose common network performance issues efficiently, which is crucial for effective troubleshooting.
Question 14 of 30
Objective 4.8 IP Services

What is the correct sequence of commands to configure RSA key-based SSH access on a Cisco router for remote management?

Concept tested: IP Services

A. Incorrect: configure terminal, hostname <hostname>, ip domain-name <domainname>, crypto key generate rsa general-switched modulus 1024, line vty 0 4, login local is incorrect because it includes unnecessary commands like setting a hostname and domain name which are unrelated to configuring RSA key-based SSH access.

B. Incorrect: configure terminal, hostname <hostname>, ip domain-name <domainname>, crypto key generate rsa modulus 512, line vty 0 4, login local is incorrect because although the sequence starts correctly, using a modulus size of 512 bits is too small for secure encryption; 1024 bits or higher is recommended.

C. Incorrect: configure terminal, hostname <hostname>, ip domain-name <domainname>, crypto key generate rsa general-switched modulus 512, line vty 0 4, login local is incorrect because it specifies 'general-switched' in the crypto command which is not relevant to RSA key generation for SSH access and may cause configuration errors.

D. Correct: configure terminal, hostname <hostname>, ip domain-name <domainname>, crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024, line vty 0 4, login local is correct because it includes all necessary commands in the right sequence, generating an RSA key with a secure modulus size of 1024 bits and configuring VTY lines for SSH login.

Why this matters: This matters because configuring secure remote management ensures network devices are protected from unauthorized access.
Question 15 of 30
Objective 2.9 Network Access

When configuring a WLAN for client connectivity, which setting must be adjusted to ensure that only authorized clients can connect based on their MAC address?

Concept tested: Network Access

A. Correct: Set up MAC address filtering is correct because it restricts access to only those devices with MAC addresses that are explicitly allowed.

B. Incorrect: Configure SSID broadcast settings is incorrect because it controls whether the SSID is visible but does not manage client authorization based on MAC address.

C. Incorrect: Enable WPA3 encryption is incorrect because while WPA3 encryption secures data, it does not control which specific devices can connect via their MAC addresses.

D. Incorrect: Disable DHCP server is incorrect because disabling the DHCP server affects IP assignment but does not influence device access based on MAC address filtering.

Why this matters: This matters because understanding how to restrict WLAN access by MAC address is crucial for securing network resources against unauthorized users.
Question 16 of 30
Objective 5.10 Security Fundamentals

Which configuration step is necessary to ensure a client device can connect securely to a WLAN using WPA2 PSK via the GUI interface?

Concept tested: Security Fundamentals

A. Correct: Define a pre-shared key in the wireless settings is correct because defining a pre-shared key (PSK) in the wireless settings ensures secure client connections using WPA2 PSK.

B. Incorrect: Configure an open network with no encryption is incorrect because configuring an open network with no encryption would leave the WLAN vulnerable to unauthorized access and attacks, which contradicts the requirement for secure connection via WPA2 PSK.

C. Incorrect: Set up a RADIUS server for user authentication is incorrect because setting up a RADIUS server for user authentication is not necessary when using WPA2 PSK with pre-shared keys; this option is relevant for enterprise-level security solutions that require dynamic key management and individual user authentication.

D. Incorrect: Enable SSID broadcast on the access point is incorrect because enabling SSID broadcast on the access point, while potentially useful for visibility, does not address the requirement to secure client connections via WPA2 PSK. Broadcasting the SSID alone does not provide any encryption or security.

Why this matters: This matters because understanding how to configure pre-shared keys correctly is crucial for ensuring wireless network security and compliance with industry standards.
Question 17 of 30
Objective 6.1 Automation and Programmability

In a network with 500 devices, how does automation reduce the risk of misconfiguration due to human error?

Concept tested: Automation and Programmability

A. Incorrect: It increases manual configuration speed is incorrect because faster manual work still leaves every device exposed to typing and copy-paste mistakes.

B. Incorrect: It decreases operational scale is incorrect because reducing operational scale does not explain how automation prevents configuration drift.

C. Incorrect: It eliminates the need for network monitoring is incorrect because eliminating network monitoring would increase, not decrease, the risk of misconfiguration.

D. Correct: It ensures consistent configurations across all devices is correct because automation applies the same approved configuration pattern across many devices.

Why this matters: This matters because configuration consistency is how automation lowers change risk at scale.
Question 18 of 30
Objective 3.5 IP Connectivity

In a network where two routers are configured with HSRP to provide redundancy, what happens if the active router fails and the standby router does not take over?

Concept tested: IP Connectivity

A. Incorrect: HSRP automatically elects a new active router from other HSRP groups is incorrect because hSRP does not automatically elect a new active router from other HSRP groups when the current active router fails.

B. Correct: The network traffic is dropped until manual intervention if the standby router does not take over after the active router fails.

C. Incorrect: VRRP takes control of the virtual IP address is incorrect because vRRP is a separate protocol and does not intervene in an HSRP scenario unless explicitly configured to do so.

D. Incorrect: The backup router remains in standby mode indefinitely is incorrect because it is the backup router should transition from standby mode to active mode when it detects that the current active router has failed.

Why this matters: This matters because understanding how HSRP operates during a failure ensures you can maintain network stability and troubleshoot effectively in real-world scenarios.
Question 19 of 30
Objective 1.1 Network Fundamentals

Which device is primarily responsible for forwarding packets between different networks based on IP addresses?

Concept tested: Network Fundamentals

A. Correct: Layer 3 switch is correct because it is a Layer 3 switch forwards packets based on IP addresses and can route between different networks.

B. Incorrect: Firewall is incorrect because it is a firewall primarily focuses on security by filtering traffic based on rules rather than routing packets between networks.

C. Incorrect: Router is incorrect because while routers do forward packets between different networks, the question specifies a Layer 3 device, which in this context is more accurately described as a Layer 3 switch.

D. Incorrect: Layer 2 switch is incorrect because it is a Layer 2 switch operates at the data link layer and forwards frames based on MAC addresses within the same network.

Why this matters: This matters because understanding the role of each networking device ensures you can configure and troubleshoot networks effectively.
Question 20 of 30
Objective 4.5 IP Services

Which syslog severity level is typically used for informational messages that do not require immediate action but are useful for debugging purposes?

Concept tested: IP Services

A. Correct: Informational is correct because it indicates messages that provide useful information for debugging and monitoring system operations without requiring immediate action.

B. Incorrect: Alert is incorrect because s are reserved for conditions that require immediate correction by the system administrator to prevent serious operational problems.

C. Incorrect: Emergency is incorrect because severity levels denote situations where an action must be taken immediately to avoid loss of critical data or system integrity, which does not align with informational messages.

D. Incorrect: Warning is incorrect because s indicate potential problems that may need attention but do not require immediate correction, making them less specific for purely informative debugging purposes.

Why this matters: This matters because understanding severity levels helps in configuring and interpreting logs effectively during network troubleshooting and maintenance.
Question 21 of 30
Objective 2.5 Network Access

In a Rapid PVST+ environment, if Switch X is not the root bridge and has two ports connected to different switches, which port will be designated as the root port based on its path cost to reach the root bridge?

Concept tested: Network Access

A. Incorrect: The port with higher bandwidth is incorrect because higher bandwidth does not determine the root port; path cost to the root bridge does.

B. Correct: The port with lower path cost to the root bridge is designated as the root port in Rapid PVST+.

C. Incorrect: The port that connects directly to the root bridge is incorrect because direct connection to the root bridge is not necessary for a port to be selected as the root port.

D. Incorrect: The port that is in blocking state is incorrect because it is a blocking state port cannot become the root port, regardless of its path cost.

Why this matters: This matters because understanding how switches determine root ports based on path costs is crucial for configuring and troubleshooting Spanning Tree Protocol effectively.
Question 22 of 30
Objective 5.7 Security Fundamentals

In a network where DHCP snooping is enabled, why might a host still receive an IP address from an unauthorized server?

Concept tested: Security Fundamentals

A. Incorrect: Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) is blocking all traffic is incorrect because it blocks ARP traffic rather than DHCP traffic.

B. Incorrect: The switch's global DHCP snooping policy is disabled is incorrect because disabling global DHCP snooping would prevent any port from filtering unauthorized DHCP servers.

C. Incorrect: Port security settings are too restrictive is incorrect because restrictive port security settings do not affect the trust status of a port for DHCP snooping purposes.

D. Correct: The switch port connected to the host is not trusted is correct because if the switch port connected to the host is not trusted, it can still receive IP addresses from unauthorized DHCP servers.

Why this matters: This matters because understanding how DHCP snooping works on untrusted ports is crucial for securing network devices against rogue DHCP servers.
Question 23 of 30
Objective 6.6 Automation and Programmability

When considering the cost implications of using Terraform for infrastructure as code compared to Ansible, which factor is most relevant in a scenario where rapid deployment cycles are critical?

Concept tested: Automation and Programmability

A. Incorrect: Terraform's state file management overhead is incorrect because it focuses on Terraform's state file management overhead rather than cost implications in a rapid deployment scenario.

B. Incorrect: Cost of proprietary software licenses is incorrect because neither Terraform nor Ansible require proprietary software licenses that would significantly impact costs for frequent changes.

C. Correct: Ansible's agentless architecture reduces the need for additional infrastructure, which can lower costs in environments requiring frequent and rapid changes.

D. Incorrect: Complexity of declarative configuration syntax is incorrect because while Terraform uses a declarative syntax, this does not directly address cost implications or deployment speed.

Why this matters: This matters because understanding cost implications of automation tools helps in selecting the most efficient solution for dynamic infrastructure needs.
Question 24 of 30
Objective 3.4 IP Connectivity

In a broadcast network, what happens if two routers with the same priority value both claim to be the Designated Router (DR)?

Concept tested: IP Connectivity

A. Incorrect: A new election is held until a single DR is determined is incorrect because it is a new election is unnecessary; once priorities are equal, IP addresses decide.

B. Incorrect: Both routers become backup designated routers (BDRs) is incorrect because both routers cannot simultaneously become BDRs when only one DR and one BDR can exist per segment.

C. Incorrect: Neither router will become the DR and OSPF adjacency fails is incorrect because oSPF adjacency does not fail due to a tie in priority or IP address; instead, the router with the higher IP becomes the DR.

D. Correct: The router with the higher IP address becomes the DR is correct because if priorities are equal, the router with the numerically higher IP address wins the election and becomes the Designated Router.

Why this matters: This matters because understanding this rule ensures proper network configuration and troubleshooting in OSPF environments.
Question 25 of 30
Objective 1.12 Network Fundamentals

When considering the cost implications of virtualization in a data center, which option provides the most logical isolation while minimizing hardware costs?

Concept tested: Network Fundamentals

A. Incorrect: Implementing full server virtualization with multiple VMs per physical host is incorrect because implementing full server virtualization increases hardware costs due to the overhead of running multiple VMs on each physical host.

B. Incorrect: Deploying VRF instances for network segmentation across different departments is incorrect because deploying VRF instances for network segmentation requires additional configuration and may not minimize hardware costs as effectively as containers do.

C. Correct: Using containers to run isolated applications on shared operating systems is correct because using containers provides logical isolation while sharing the same operating system, which minimizes hardware costs compared to other options.

D. Incorrect: Creating separate VLANs for each application environment to ensure security is incorrect because creating separate VLANs for each application environment can be costly in terms of network resources and does not reduce server hardware expenses.

Why this matters: This matters because understanding cost-effective virtualization methods is crucial for optimizing data center operations and passing the CCNA exam.
Question 26 of 30
Objective 4.3 IP Services

Why is a client unable to resolve hostnames when the DNS server address is not specified in DHCP options?

Concept tested: IP Services

A. Correct: The client fails to receive necessary DNS configuration is correct because without a specified DNS server address in DHCP options, the client cannot receive the necessary configuration to resolve hostnames.

B. Incorrect: The client relies on WINS servers instead of DNS is incorrect because clients do not rely on WINS servers for name resolution when DNS information is missing; WINS is used primarily for NetBIOS over TCP/IP name resolution.

C. Incorrect: The client cannot query DNS without an IP address is incorrect because it is a client can query DNS after obtaining an IP address, but it needs the DNS server's address to perform hostname resolution.

D. Incorrect: The client uses default gateway for name resolution is incorrect because clients do not use default gateways for name resolution when DNS information is missing; they rely on DNS servers for resolving hostnames.

Why this matters: This matters because understanding how DHCP and DNS interact is crucial for configuring network services effectively in real-world scenarios.
Question 27 of 30
Objective 2.3 Network Access

Which protocol should be enabled on a Cisco switch to discover LLDP neighbors without requiring configuration changes on neighboring devices?

Concept tested: Network Access

A. Correct: Link-Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) is correct because lLDP is the standards-based protocol for discovering directly connected network neighbors.

B. Incorrect: Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) is incorrect because cDP is Cisco proprietary and is not the protocol named in the stem.

C. Incorrect: Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is incorrect because it manages network loops and does not provide neighbor discovery capabilities.

D. Incorrect: Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) is incorrect because negotiates trunk settings and does not provide LLDP neighbor discovery.

Why this matters: This matters because LLDP is the vendor-neutral discovery option used in mixed network environments.
Question 28 of 30
Objective 5.3 Security Fundamentals

A network administrator notices that remote users can only access the router's console but not VTY lines after applying new security policies. What is a likely cause of this issue?

Concept tested: Security Fundamentals

A. Incorrect: The 'line con 0' password has been disabled is incorrect because disabling the 'line con 0' password would prevent both local and remote access to the console.

B. Incorrect: VTY line passwords are set to expire immediately is incorrect because vTY line passwords expiring immediately does not affect whether users can log in initially; it only affects subsequent logins after expiration.

C. Incorrect: Remote login attempts exceed the configured threshold limit is incorrect because exceeding a login threshold limit would typically result in account lockout or temporary restriction, not an inability to connect at all.

D. Correct: Console privilege levels are higher than VTY privilege levels is correct because higher console privilege levels compared to VTY lines restrict remote access while allowing local console access.

Why this matters: This matters because understanding privilege level differences between console and VTY connections ensures secure network management practices.
Question 29 of 30
Objective 6.5 Automation and Programmability

Which of the following is a common method for securing REST-based API calls?

Concept tested: Automation and Programmability

A. Incorrect: Basic HTTP authentication is incorrect because sends credentials in plain text and lacks robust security features for REST APIs.

B. Incorrect: SSH tunneling is incorrect because it is used to secure network connections rather than API calls specifically.

C. Incorrect: TLS encryption is incorrect because while TLS encryption secures data transmission, it does not provide the authorization mechanisms OAuth 2.0 offers for REST-based APIs.

D. Correct: OAuth 2.0 provides a flexible and standardized method for securing REST-based APIs with various authorization flows.

Why this matters: This matters because understanding OAuth 2.0 is crucial for securing modern web services and applications, which aligns with the exam's focus on automation and programmability.
Question 30 of 30
Objective 3.3 IP Connectivity

In a scenario where R1 must prioritize traffic to subnet 172.16.5.0/24 over a default route, which type of static route configuration on R1 would ensure this priority?

Concept tested: IP Connectivity

A. Correct: Network route with lower administrative distance is correct because it is a network route with a lower administrative distance ensures that traffic destined for subnet 172.16.5.0/24 takes precedence over other routes.

B. Incorrect: Host route for the gateway IP is incorrect because it is a host route applies only to individual IP addresses, not entire subnets, and does not address the need to prioritize one subnet over default routes.

C. Incorrect: Floating static route with higher metric is incorrect because it is a floating static route with a higher metric would actually lower its priority compared to other routes, including default routes, which contradicts the requirement of prioritizing traffic.

D. Incorrect: Default route with lower metric is incorrect because lowering the metric on a default route would make it more preferred for all destinations not explicitly routed elsewhere, rather than just prioritizing one specific subnet.

Why this matters: This matters because understanding how to prioritize specific subnets over default routes is crucial for network administrators to ensure critical traffic gets preferential treatment.
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