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Question 1 of 10
Objective 1.2Overlay and Virtualization
In a VXLAN overlay, what does the VNI identify?
Correct Answer: A. The logical Layer 2 segment carried across the overlay
Concept tested: Overlay and Virtualization
A. ✓ Correct: VXLAN Network Identifier maps traffic to a specific virtual Layer 2 segment inside the overlay.
B. × Incorrect: A VNI does not identify a physical interface on a leaf switch.
C. × Incorrect: The underlay routing protocol or autonomous system is separate from VXLAN segment identification.
D. × Incorrect: Spanning-tree instances are not what VXLAN uses to distinguish overlay segments.
Why this matters:This is important because CCNP Enterprise questions often test whether you can separate overlay identifiers from underlay routing details.
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Question 2 of 10
Objective 4.3Assurance and Telemetry
What does stratum 1 mean in NTP?
Correct Answer: A. The server is directly attached to a reference clock
Concept tested: Assurance and Telemetry
A. ✓ Correct: Stratum 1 systems obtain time directly from a reference source such as a radio, GPS, or atomic clock.
B. × Incorrect: Stratum does not count the number of clients.
C. × Incorrect: Multicast delivery is unrelated to what stratum 1 means.
D. × Incorrect: Lower stratum numbers are closer to the reference clock, not less accurate by definition.
Why this matters:This is important because time hierarchy questions show up in enterprise operations whenever log correlation and certificate validity depend on synchronized clocks.
Question 3 of 10
Objective 3.4Switching, Access, and Device Services
What must be present before a Cisco device can use SSH for secure remote administration?
Correct Answer: A. An RSA key pair generated on the device
Concept tested: Switching, Access, and Device Services
A. ✓ Correct: Cisco SSH configuration requires locally generated RSA keys before the SSH server can operate.
B. × Incorrect: TACACS+ can support AAA, but it does not replace the key material required for SSH itself.
C. × Incorrect: Native VLAN settings do not enable secure shell access.
D. × Incorrect: NetFlow export is unrelated to establishing SSH service.
Why this matters:This is important because CCNP Enterprise can test whether you know the prerequisite steps for securing device management access.
Question 4 of 10
Objective 6.1Automation and Programmability
In JSON, which structure contains name/value pairs enclosed in curly braces?
Correct Answer: A. An object
Concept tested: Automation and Programmability
A. ✓ Correct: JSON object is an unordered collection of name/value pairs enclosed in curly braces.
B. × Incorrect: Arrays are ordered lists of values enclosed in square brackets.
C. × Incorrect: Path parameters are an API concept, not a native JSON structure.
D. × Incorrect: RPC methods are protocol operations and are not one of JSON's basic data structures.
Why this matters:This is important because automation questions often expect you to parse device payloads and recognize the difference between JSON objects and arrays immediately.
Question 5 of 10
Objective 2.5Infrastructure Routing and Resiliency
What makes a static route a floating static route?
Correct Answer: A. It has a higher administrative distance than the preferred route
Concept tested: Infrastructure Routing and Resiliency
A. ✓ Correct: Floating static route is configured with a higher administrative distance so it stays in reserve until the primary route disappears.
B. × Incorrect: The concept is tied to administrative distance, not to having the lowest metric in every case.
C. × Incorrect: Virtual MAC addresses are associated with first-hop redundancy protocols such as HSRP, not static-route preference.
D. × Incorrect: Redistributing a route into OSPF is a separate routing action and does not define a floating static route.
Why this matters:This is important because CCNP Enterprise expects you to know how backup static routing is activated without displacing the primary path under normal conditions.
Question 6 of 10
Objective 3.3Switching and Access
In 802.1X access control, what device acts as the authenticator?
Correct Answer: A. The switch or access point that relays EAP exchanges toward the authentication server
Concept tested: Switching and Access
A. ✓ Correct: The authenticator sits on the network edge and controls the port while relaying authentication messages.
B. × Incorrect: The endpoint is the supplicant, not the authenticator.
C. × Incorrect: The AAA server authenticates the request but is not the port-controlling authenticator.
D. × Incorrect: Time synchronization does not make a device the 802.1X authenticator.
Why this matters:This is important because CCNP Enterprise security scenarios often test whether you can separate edge enforcement, credentials, and backend identity validation roles.
Question 7 of 10
Objective 2.2Enterprise Routing and Resiliency
On a broadcast multiaccess network, which OSPF role forms full adjacencies with DROther routers to reduce LSA flooding overhead?
Correct Answer: A. Designated Router
Concept tested: Enterprise Routing and Resiliency
A. ✓ Correct: The DR becomes the primary exchange point for link-state information on a broadcast segment.
B. × Incorrect: An ABR connects OSPF areas and is not the special role chosen per broadcast segment.
C. × Incorrect: An ASBR injects external routes and is unrelated to DR election.
D. × Incorrect: A stub router is not the role that centralizes adjacency exchange on the segment.
Why this matters:This is important because OSPF troubleshooting questions often hinge on knowing which roles should become central adjacency points on shared media.
Question 8 of 10
Objective 1.3Architecture and Virtualization
According to RFC 4364, how does a service provider use VRFs to maintain separate routing tables for different customer networks on the same physical hardware?
Correct Answer: A. Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF) allows each customer's routes to be isolated in their own forwarding table.
Concept tested: Architecture and Virtualization
A. ✓ Correct: VRFs enable multiple routing tables on a single device, isolating each customer's network traffic.
B. × Incorrect: Overlapping address space can be managed with VRFs without requiring unique IP addresses for each customer.
C. × Incorrect: Using ACLs alone does not provide the isolation and separate routing required by VRFs.
D. × Incorrect: CE routers do not peer directly; they send routes to PE routers which manage VRFs.
Why this matters:This is important because VRFs allow service providers to efficiently manage multiple customer networks on shared hardware, ensuring proper isolation and routing.
Question 9 of 10
Objective 5.4Security Controls
Why is SSH preferred over Telnet for Cisco device administration?
Correct Answer: A. SSH encrypts remote management traffic, while Telnet sends it in clear text
Concept tested: Security Controls
A. ✓ Correct: SSH protects credentials and command traffic with encryption, while Telnet does not.
B. × Incorrect: SSH and Telnet are management access methods, not routing-update carriers.
C. × Incorrect: First-hop redundancy is unrelated to the transport used for remote CLI access.
D. × Incorrect: SNMP polling and syslog export are separate management protocols and do not define why SSH is preferred.
Why this matters:This is important because CCNP Enterprise security questions expect you to identify the basic control that protects remote administrative sessions.
Question 10 of 10
Objective 1.3Overlay and Virtualization
Why would an enterprise router or firewall use a VRF?
Correct Answer: A. To keep multiple routing tables isolated on the same device
Concept tested: Overlay and Virtualization
A. ✓ Correct: VRF creates separate routing and forwarding instances so traffic and routes stay isolated even on shared hardware.
B. × Incorrect: VLAN extension over a routed fabric is an overlay function, not the purpose of VRFs.
C. × Incorrect: OSPF DR election is unrelated to VRF route-table separation.
D. × Incorrect: Exporting telemetry is a monitoring function, not a VRF function.
Why this matters:This is important because CCNP Enterprise expects you to recognize when segmentation is being solved with separate routing tables instead of overlays or policy tools.
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48 verified questions are currently in the live bank. Questions updated at Apr 30, 2026, 7:32 AM CDT. The daily set rotates at 10:00 AM local time, and each explanation links back to the source used to write it. Use the web set for quick practice, then switch to the app when available for larger banks and deeper review.
Careers and fields this exam supports
CCNP is aimed at people already past the entry network stage and working toward more serious enterprise design, routing, switching, and infrastructure ownership.
Role examples: senior network engineer, enterprise network administrator, infrastructure lead, and network architect track.
Where it shows up: enterprise networking, large-scale routing and switching, resilience planning, and advanced operations.
On-the-job payoff: the job already expects stronger design and troubleshooting depth than CCNA covers.
Typical next step: It usually comes after CCNA and supports movement toward higher-level architecture or specialist Cisco tracks.
CCNP Enterprise leans harder on design tradeoffs, enterprise routing behavior, and operational depth than CCNA. The exam likes the answer that holds up in a larger production network, not the first Cisco term you recognize.
Current emphasis in this bank: Automation and Programmability (27%).
Expect more scenario wording where multiple answers are technically possible but only one scales, converges, or isolates failure the way an enterprise design should.
Best official starting point: CCNP Enterprise certification.
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