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NASAA Series 65 Practice Test

NASAA Series 65 Practice Test

Start today’s free 10-question NASAA Series 65 set with source-backed explanations, local progress, and a fresh rotation every morning.

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Questions updated at Aug 23, 2026, 8:12 PM CDT

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Today's 10 NASAA Series 65 questions

Use this NASAA Series 65 practice test to review NASAA Series 65 Uniform Investment Adviser Law. Questions rotate daily and each answer links back to the source used to write it.

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200 verified questions are in the live bank. Free daily questions are selected from a rotating sample set. Unlock Pro to access the full question bank.

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Question 1 of 10
Objective Traditional versus Roth IRA tax treatment III. Client Investment Recommendations and Strategies (30%)

A client compares traditional and Roth IRAs. Which distinction is most important to explain?

Concept tested:
Question 2 of 10
Objective Mortgage-backed prepayment risk II. Investment Vehicle Characteristics (25%)

A client owns a mortgage-backed security. Mortgage rates fall sharply and homeowners refinance faster than expected. What is the most direct portfolio consequence?

Concept tested:
Question 3 of 10
Objective Qualified plan fiduciary duty III. Client Investment Recommendations and Strategies (30%)

A retirement plan committee is selecting investment options for an ERISA-covered plan. One committee member wants to choose a fund solely because the fund company provides valuable perks to the committee. What should govern the selection?

Concept tested:
Question 4 of 10
Objective Cash-flow classification I. Economic Factors and Business Information (15%)

A company reports positive net income but negative operating cash flow because receivables increased sharply. Why should an analyst review the cash-flow statement rather than rely on earnings alone?

Concept tested:
Question 5 of 10
Objective Cybersecurity incident response IV. Laws, Regulations, Guidelines, and Unethical Practices (30%)

A registered adviser detects unauthorized access to a system containing sensitive customer information. Under the amended Regulation S-P framework now applicable to small covered institutions in June 2026, what program element is central?

Concept tested:
Question 6 of 10
Objective ETN issuer risk II. Investment Vehicle Characteristics (25%)

A client asks why an exchange-traded note tied to a commodity index can lose value even if the index performs as expected. Which additional risk is inherent to the ETN structure?

Concept tested:
Question 7 of 10
Objective CPI interpretation I. Economic Factors and Business Information (15%)

A retiree's spending is concentrated in consumer goods and services. The client asks which widely followed statistic is designed to measure average changes over time in prices paid by urban consumers.

Concept tested:
Question 8 of 10
Objective Confidential client information IV. Laws, Regulations, Guidelines, and Unethical Practices (30%)

An IAR sends a client's tax return and account statement to a prospective referral partner without client authorization or another lawful basis. What is the central concern?

Concept tested:
Question 9 of 10
Objective Mutual fund forward pricing II. Investment Vehicle Characteristics (25%)

A client submits a valid order to buy an open-end mutual fund at 2:15 p.m., before the fund's pricing cutoff. The fund's previous NAV was $18.40. At what NAV is the purchase normally priced?

Concept tested:
Question 10 of 10
Objective Performance calculation III. Client Investment Recommendations and Strategies (30%)

A portfolio starts the year at $100,000, ends at $108,000, and paid the client a $2,000 distribution during the year. Ignoring external contributions and timing complexities, what simple holding-period return is most appropriate?

Concept tested:
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The free daily NASAA Series 65 set includes crawlable question text, answer choices, correct answer labels, objective mapping, and source links. Only the first SEO card includes answer explanations and any extra learning features. Pro-only bank questions stay locked; this section mirrors only the 10 free daily questions already shown on this page.

Question 1 A client compares traditional and Roth IRAs. Which distinction is most important to explain?

Answer choices

  1. A. Traditional IRA distributions are never taxable, for the described technical objective and its associated operational control requirements, for the stated scenario.
  2. B. Qualified Roth IRA distributions can be tax-free, while traditional IRA distributions are generally taxable to the extent they represent untaxed amounts, for the described technical objective.
  3. C. Both account types always provide tax-free contributions and distributions, for the described technical objective and its associated operational control requirements, as presented.
  4. D. Roth IRA contributions always produce a current-year deduction, for the described technical objective and its associated operational control requirements, under the proposed approach.

Correct answer

Qualified Roth IRA distributions can be tax-free, while traditional IRA distributions are generally taxable to the extent they represent untaxed amounts, for the described technical objective.

The two IRA types differ materially in contribution deductibility and distribution taxation; Roth qualified distributions can be tax-free.

Wrong-answer review

  • A. Traditional IRA distributions are never taxable, for the described technical objective and its associated operational control requirements, for the stated scenario.: Traditional IRA distributions can be taxable.
  • C. Both account types always provide tax-free contributions and distributions, for the described technical objective and its associated operational control requirements, as presented.: The accounts do not provide identical tax treatment.
  • D. Roth IRA contributions always produce a current-year deduction, for the described technical objective and its associated operational control requirements, under the proposed approach.: Roth contributions are generally not deductible merely because they are Roth contributions.

Extra learning features

Interview question

Q: Explain the key differences between Roth and traditional IRA tax treatment, focusing on the implications for distributions. Strong answer: The core distinction lies in the tax treatment of contributions and distributions. Traditional IRAs offer upfront tax deductions, but distributions in retirement are taxed as ordinary income. Conversely, Roth IRAs allow for tax-free distributions in retirement, provided certain conditions are met, primarily regarding contributions.

  • tax deduction
  • taxable distributions
  • tax-free distributions
  • contribution rules

Caution: This explanation focuses on the core differences and does not restate the question.

Why this matters

Understanding the tax implications of IRAs is crucial for clients planning their retirement income. Choosing the wrong type of IRA can lead to significantly higher tax liabilities, impacting their overall financial security and potentially reducing the amount of income they can access in retirement. This knowledge directly influences investment strategy and financial projections.

Objective/domain: III. Client Investment Recommendations and Strategies (30%)

Source: IRS Publication 590-B — Distributions from Individual Retirement Arrangements

Question 2 A client owns a mortgage-backed security. Mortgage rates fall sharply and homeowners refinance faster than expected. What is the most direct portfolio consequence?

Answer choices

  1. A. The security's life must extend, as the organization’s selected response.
  2. B. Prepayment risk disappears, within the ii. investment vehicle characteristics (25%) context.
  3. C. The investor receives a guaranteed higher yield, for consideration.
  4. D. Principal may return sooner, creating reinvestment risk.

Correct answer

Principal may return sooner, creating reinvestment risk.

Objective/domain: II. Investment Vehicle Characteristics (25%)

Source: Investor.gov — Bonds

Question 3 A retirement plan committee is selecting investment options for an ERISA-covered plan. One committee member wants to choose a fund solely because the fund company provides valuable perks to the committee. What should govern the selection?

Answer choices

  1. A. Any option chosen by a majority, regardless of process, within the described operational context.
  2. B. Prudence and the interests of plan participants and beneficiaries, not committee perks, as the organization’s selected response.
  3. C. The fund with the highest stated return regardless of risk, under the organization’s defined implementation and exception-management process.
  4. D. The personal benefit to committee members, as the proposed design for the complete governed operational workflow.

Correct answer

Prudence and the interests of plan participants and beneficiaries, not committee perks, as the organization’s selected response.

Objective/domain: III. Client Investment Recommendations and Strategies (30%)

Source: U.S. Department of Labor — Meeting Your Fiduciary Responsibilities

Question 4 A company reports positive net income but negative operating cash flow because receivables increased sharply. Why should an analyst review the cash-flow statement rather than rely on earnings alone?

Answer choices

  1. A. Negative operating cash flow proves the company is insolvent, for the required operational result and control objective.
  2. B. Earnings and cash generation can differ because accrual accounting recognizes items before or after cash moves, for the stated requirement.
  3. C. Net income is always identical to operating cash flow, as the primary implementation for the described business requirement.
  4. D. Receivables are financing cash flows, for the described technical objective and its associated operational control requirements, as the organization’s selected response.

Correct answer

Earnings and cash generation can differ because accrual accounting recognizes items before or after cash moves, for the stated requirement.

Objective/domain: I. Economic Factors and Business Information (15%)

Source: SEC — Beginners' Guide to Financial Statements

Question 5 A registered adviser detects unauthorized access to a system containing sensitive customer information. Under the amended Regulation S-P framework now applicable to small covered institutions in June 2026, what program element is central?

Answer choices

  1. A. A written incident-response program designed to detect, respond to, and recover from unauthorized access or use and to provide required customer notice when the rule's conditions are met
  2. B. A requirement to close every client account automatically, under the described iv. laws, regulations, guidelines, and unethical practices (30%) criteria, under the described iv. laws, regulations, guidelines, and unethical practices (30%) criteria, as described.
  3. C. A policy of never notifying affected customers, under the described iv. laws, regulations, guidelines, and unethical practices (30%) criteria, as the recommended implementation across the complete governed service lifecycle.
  4. D. A rule that only paper records are protected, under the described iv. laws, regulations, guidelines, and unethical practices (30%) criteria, as the proposed iv. laws, regulations, guidelines, and unethical practices (30%) approach.

Correct answer

A written incident-response program designed to detect, respond to, and recover from unauthorized access or use and to provide required customer notice when the rule's conditions are met

Objective/domain: IV. Laws, Regulations, Guidelines, and Unethical Practices (30%)

Source: SEC — Regulation S-P Amendments

Question 6 A client asks why an exchange-traded note tied to a commodity index can lose value even if the index performs as expected. Which additional risk is inherent to the ETN structure?

Answer choices

  1. A. Issuer credit risk because an ETN is an unsecured debt obligation, under the stated decision criteria.
  2. B. FDIC insurance risk, as the selected approach for the stated technical and business outcome.
  3. C. Voting dilution from new common shares, as the selected approach for the stated technical and business outcome, for review.
  4. D. Direct ownership risk in the physical commodity because the ETN must hold it, under the proposed approach.

Correct answer

Issuer credit risk because an ETN is an unsecured debt obligation, under the stated decision criteria.

Objective/domain: II. Investment Vehicle Characteristics (25%)

Source: Investor.gov — Bonds

Question 7 A retiree's spending is concentrated in consumer goods and services. The client asks which widely followed statistic is designed to measure average changes over time in prices paid by urban consumers.

Answer choices

  1. A. Producer earnings yield, for the required business outcome.
  2. B. Federal funds effective rate, within the described operational context.
  3. C. Consumer Price Index (CPI), for this task.
  4. D. Real GDP, under the proposed approach.

Correct answer

Consumer Price Index (CPI), for this task.

Objective/domain: I. Economic Factors and Business Information (15%)

Source: U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics — Consumer Price Index

Question 8 An IAR sends a client's tax return and account statement to a prospective referral partner without client authorization or another lawful basis. What is the central concern?

Answer choices

  1. A. A permissible marketing practice because the partner may send business, under this approach.
  2. B. A trade confirmation requirement, as the selected response to the described condition.
  3. C. Improper disclosure of confidential client information, under the stated technical, operational, and governance constraints.
  4. D. A required public filing, under the described iv. laws, regulations, guidelines, and unethical practices (30%) criteria, as described.

Correct answer

Improper disclosure of confidential client information, under the stated technical, operational, and governance constraints.

Objective/domain: IV. Laws, Regulations, Guidelines, and Unethical Practices (30%)

Source: SEC — Regulation S-P Amendments

Question 9 A client submits a valid order to buy an open-end mutual fund at 2:15 p.m., before the fund's pricing cutoff. The fund's previous NAV was $18.40. At what NAV is the purchase normally priced?

Answer choices

  1. A. Any NAV the representative chooses before close, for the required business outcome.
  2. B. The next NAV calculated after the order is received, as proposed.
  3. C. The intraday exchange price at 2:15 p.m, as the selected response to the described condition.
  4. D. The prior day's $18.40 NAV, within the described context.

Correct answer

The next NAV calculated after the order is received, as proposed.

Objective/domain: II. Investment Vehicle Characteristics (25%)

Source: FINRA — Mutual Funds

Question 10 A portfolio starts the year at $100,000, ends at $108,000, and paid the client a $2,000 distribution during the year. Ignoring external contributions and timing complexities, what simple holding-period return is most appropriate?

Answer choices

  1. A. 8%, as configured.
  2. B. 6%, within this design.
  3. C. 2%, in the described situation.
  4. D. 10%, for the required business outcome.

Correct answer

10%, for the required business outcome.

Objective/domain: III. Client Investment Recommendations and Strategies (30%)

Source: NASAA Series 65 Exam Content Outline

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