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FINRA Series 66 Practice Test

FINRA Series 66 Practice Test

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Questions updated at Aug 23, 2026, 8:12 PM CDT

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Today's 10 FINRA Series 66 questions

Use this FINRA Series 66 practice test to review NASAA Uniform Combined State Law Examination. Questions rotate daily and each answer links back to the source used to write it.

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200 verified questions are in the live bank. Free daily questions are selected from a rotating sample set. Unlock Pro to access the full question bank.

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Question 1 of 10
Objective Apply futures and options characteristics II. Investment Vehicle Characteristics (17%)

A futures position moves adversely and the account equity falls below required maintenance levels. What is the most immediate practical concern?

Concept tested:
Question 2 of 10
Objective Apply ethical and fiduciary obligations IV. Laws, Regulations, Guidelines, and Unethical Practices (45%)

An investment adviser is choosing between two substantially comparable investments for a client. One pays the adviser materially higher compensation. What should the adviser do FIRST?

Concept tested:
Question 3 of 10
Objective Select a portfolio-management approach III. Client/Customer Investment Recommendations and Strategies (30%)

A client invests $1,000 into the same diversified fund every month regardless of market price. Which technique is being used?

Concept tested:
Question 4 of 10
Objective Distinguish equity public offerings II. Investment Vehicle Characteristics (17%)

Investors commit capital to a blank-check company before knowing the specific operating business it will ultimately acquire. Which risk is most distinctive?

Concept tested:
Question 5 of 10
Objective Use valuation ratios I. Economic Factors and Business Information (8%)

Company A has a P/E of 24 and a close peer has a P/E of 16. What is the most defensible conclusion from the ratios alone?

Concept tested:
Question 6 of 10
Objective Apply securities and issuer regulation IV. Laws, Regulations, Guidelines, and Unethical Practices (45%)

A company wants to use Rule 506(b) and include a small number of non-accredited investors. Which additional concept becomes especially important?

Concept tested:
Question 7 of 10
Objective Apply ownership and estate-planning techniques III. Client/Customer Investment Recommendations and Strategies (30%)

A client wants detailed control over how and when beneficiaries receive assets after death, including continued management by a fiduciary. Which tool is generally most suited to that objective?

Concept tested:
Question 8 of 10
Objective Apply time-value-of-money concepts I. Economic Factors and Business Information (8%)

An adviser compares two projects at the client's required return. Project A has a positive net present value and Project B has a negative net present value. Assuming the estimates are reliable, which project better satisfies the required return?

Concept tested:
Question 9 of 10
Objective Apply broker-dealer regulation IV. Laws, Regulations, Guidelines, and Unethical Practices (45%)

A broker-dealer is voluntarily withdrawing its registration. Which form is associated with the firm's withdrawal?

Concept tested:
Question 10 of 10
Objective Consider taxes without inventing thresholds III. Client/Customer Investment Recommendations and Strategies (30%)

A client wants to harvest a capital loss while immediately buying back the same security. What should the adviser do before promising the loss will be deductible?

Concept tested:
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The free daily FINRA Series 66 set includes crawlable question text, answer choices, correct answer labels, objective mapping, and source links. Only the first SEO card includes answer explanations and any extra learning features. Pro-only bank questions stay locked; this section mirrors only the 10 free daily questions already shown on this page.

Question 1 A futures position moves adversely and the account equity falls below required maintenance levels. What is the most immediate practical concern?

Answer choices

  1. A. The contract's coupon rate will reset, for the described technical objective and its associated operational control requirements, as proposed.
  2. B. The investor receives FDIC protection, for the described technical objective and its associated operational control requirements, under the proposed approach.
  3. C. The trader may be required to add funds or the position may be liquidated under margin rules
  4. D. The position automatically converts into common stock, for the described technical objective and its associated operational control requirements, for the required outcome.

Correct answer

The trader may be required to add funds or the position may be liquidated under margin rules

Futures use margin and daily marking-to-market; adverse moves can create margin calls and possible liquidation.

Wrong-answer review

  • A. The contract's coupon rate will reset, for the described technical objective and its associated operational control requirements, as proposed.: Incorrect. This option describes a different product characteristic, overstates a feature, or fails to address the specific risk or structure tested in the scenario. Futures use margin and daily marking-to-market; adverse moves can create margin calls and possible liquidation.
  • B. The investor receives FDIC protection, for the described technical objective and its associated operational control requirements, under the proposed approach.: Incorrect. This option describes a different product characteristic, overstates a feature, or fails to address the specific risk or structure tested in the scenario. Futures use margin and daily marking-to-market; adverse moves can create margin calls and possible liquidation.
  • D. The position automatically converts into common stock, for the described technical objective and its associated operational control requirements, for the required outcome.: Incorrect. This option describes a different product characteristic, overstates a feature, or fails to address the specific risk or structure tested in the scenario. Futures use margin and daily marking-to-market; adverse moves can create margin calls and possible liquidation.

Extra learning features

Why candidates miss this

The distractor ‘The investor receives FDIC protection’ is tempting because it touches on a common misconception about investment protection. The decisive clue is the emphasis on ‘adverse moves’ and ‘margin rules,’ directly referencing the core mechanics of futures contracts and the potential for margin calls. Likely wrong answer: The investor receives FDIC protection Review focus: Economic Purpose of Futures Markets and How They Work

Why this matters

Failure to manage margin risk in futures positions can lead to rapid account depletion and significant losses, potentially jeopardizing the investor’s capital and overall financial stability. This understanding is crucial for informed trading decisions and risk mitigation.

Objective/domain: II. Investment Vehicle Characteristics (17%)

Source: Economic Purpose of Futures Markets and How They Work

Question 2 An investment adviser is choosing between two substantially comparable investments for a client. One pays the adviser materially higher compensation. What should the adviser do FIRST?

Answer choices

  1. A. Evaluate the recommendation in the client’s best interest and fully and fairly disclose the material compensation conflict so it can be appropriately addressed.
  2. B. Recommend the higher-paying investment because both products are substantially comparable, under the described iv. laws, regulations, guidelines, and unethical practices (45%) criteria, within the proposed design.
  3. C. Avoid discussing compensation because disclosure could confuse the client, under the described iv. laws, regulations, guidelines, and unethical practices (45%) criteria, under the proposed approach.
  4. D. Choose whichever investment produces the highest gross return in the prior year, for the required iv. laws, regulations, guidelines, and unethical practices (45%) outcome.

Correct answer

Evaluate the recommendation in the client’s best interest and fully and fairly disclose the material compensation conflict so it can be appropriately addressed.

Objective/domain: IV. Laws, Regulations, Guidelines, and Unethical Practices (45%)

Source: NASAA Adopted Model Rules

Question 3 A client invests $1,000 into the same diversified fund every month regardless of market price. Which technique is being used?

Answer choices

  1. A. Dollar-cost averaging, as the primary proposed approach.
  2. B. Sector rotation, as the selected response to the described condition.
  3. C. Leverage, as described.
  4. D. Short selling, for this task.

Correct answer

Dollar-cost averaging, as the primary proposed approach.

Objective/domain: III. Client/Customer Investment Recommendations and Strategies (30%)

Source: Uniform Combined State Law Examination (Series 66) Overview and Test Specifications

Question 4 Investors commit capital to a blank-check company before knowing the specific operating business it will ultimately acquire. Which risk is most distinctive?

Answer choices

  1. A. The shares can never be publicly traded, for the described technical objective and its associated operational control requirements, within the described context.
  2. B. Investors are relying on the sponsor to identify and complete a suitable acquisition within the vehicle's terms, as selected.
  3. C. The investment is exempt from all antifraud rules, for the described technical objective and its associated operational control requirements, for review.
  4. D. The sponsor guarantees a profitable acquisition, as the selected approach for the stated technical and business outcome.

Correct answer

Investors are relying on the sponsor to identify and complete a suitable acquisition within the vehicle's terms, as selected.

Objective/domain: II. Investment Vehicle Characteristics (17%)

Source: Uniform Combined State Law Examination (Series 66) Overview and Test Specifications

Question 5 Company A has a P/E of 24 and a close peer has a P/E of 16. What is the most defensible conclusion from the ratios alone?

Answer choices

  1. A. Company A is necessarily overvalued, as the proposed i. economic factors and business information (8%) approach.
  2. B. Investors are paying more per dollar of earnings for Company A than for the peer, under end-to-end security-and-governance requirements.
  3. C. Company A will grow earnings faster, for the described technical objective and its associated operational control requirements.
  4. D. The peer has higher earnings per share, for the described technical objective and its associated operational control requirements, as proposed.

Correct answer

Investors are paying more per dollar of earnings for Company A than for the peer, under end-to-end security-and-governance requirements.

Objective/domain: I. Economic Factors and Business Information (8%)

Source: Evaluating Stocks

Question 6 A company wants to use Rule 506(b) and include a small number of non-accredited investors. Which additional concept becomes especially important?

Answer choices

  1. A. The rule's sophistication and disclosure conditions for non-accredited purchasers
  2. B. The offering may use unrestricted general advertising, for the required operational result and control objective.
  3. C. The non-accredited purchasers automatically become accredited after purchase, when applied.
  4. D. The issuer must register investors on Form BD, within cross-functional operational-accountability boundaries.

Correct answer

The rule's sophistication and disclosure conditions for non-accredited purchasers

Objective/domain: IV. Laws, Regulations, Guidelines, and Unethical Practices (45%)

Source: Private placements — Rule 506(b)

Question 7 A client wants detailed control over how and when beneficiaries receive assets after death, including continued management by a fiduciary. Which tool is generally most suited to that objective?

Answer choices

  1. A. A simple market order, as selected.
  2. B. A trust, as the selected response to the described condition.
  3. C. A beneficiary risk questionnaire, within this context.
  4. D. A stock split, as the selected response to the described condition.

Correct answer

A trust, as the selected response to the described condition.

Objective/domain: III. Client/Customer Investment Recommendations and Strategies (30%)

Source: Uniform Combined State Law Examination (Series 66) Overview and Test Specifications

Question 8 An adviser compares two projects at the client's required return. Project A has a positive net present value and Project B has a negative net present value. Assuming the estimates are reliable, which project better satisfies the required return?

Answer choices

  1. A. Project B, because a negative NPV means it earns more than the discount rate, for the specified implementation requirement.
  2. B. Both, because NPV ignores the time value of money, for the stated security, delivery, and accountability requirements.
  3. C. Project A, because its discounted inflows exceed its discounted outflows, for the affected environment.
  4. D. Neither, because current yield is the only valid long-term measure, for the stated i. economic factors and business information (8%) requirement.

Correct answer

Project A, because its discounted inflows exceed its discounted outflows, for the affected environment.

Objective/domain: I. Economic Factors and Business Information (8%)

Source: Uniform Combined State Law Examination (Series 66) Overview and Test Specifications

Question 9 A broker-dealer is voluntarily withdrawing its registration. Which form is associated with the firm's withdrawal?

Answer choices

  1. A. Form U5, for the stated implementation and support requirements.
  2. B. Form BDW, as the organization’s selected response.
  3. C. Form ADV, for the stated scenario.
  4. D. Form D, for this task.

Correct answer

Form BDW, as the organization’s selected response.

Objective/domain: IV. Laws, Regulations, Guidelines, and Unethical Practices (45%)

Source: Form BD

Question 10 A client wants to harvest a capital loss while immediately buying back the same security. What should the adviser do before promising the loss will be deductible?

Answer choices

  1. A. Review the applicable tax rules and the client's transaction timing rather than guaranteeing the tax result
  2. B. Guarantee deductibility because every realized loss is usable, under the described iii. client/customer investment recommendations and strategies (30%) criteria, for consideration.
  3. C. Ignore basis because basis matters only for bonds, as the proposed design for the complete governed operational workflow.
  4. D. Assume taxes cannot affect investment recommendations, for the required iii. client/customer investment recommendations and strategies (30%) outcome, in context.

Correct answer

Review the applicable tax rules and the client's transaction timing rather than guaranteeing the tax result

Objective/domain: III. Client/Customer Investment Recommendations and Strategies (30%)

Source: Publication 550 — Investment Income and Expenses

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